Tongues

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1 Cor 13

1 Corinthians 13:1-3

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1 If I speak in the tongues of men and of angels, but have not love, I am a noisy gong or a clanging cymbal. 2 And if I have prophetic powers, and understand all mysteries and all knowledge, and if I have all faith, so as to remove mountains, but have not love, I am nothing. 3 If I give away all I have, * and if I deliver up my body to be burned, but have not love, I gain nothing.

Does this verse actually say there is a heavenly /angelic language? if the answer is yes, then the answer is yes to the rest!

___________________

In verse 2 Does Paul have all understanding of all mysteries and have all knowledge?NO! 

See 1 Corinthians 13:9

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In verse 3, Does Paul say he has actually delivered his body to be burned?

3 occurrences this Greek word for burn

Matt 5:15 Nor do people   light  a lamp and put it under a …
John 15:6 …branches are gathered, • thrown into the fire, and  burned. 
1 Cor 13:3 …if I deliver up my body to be   burned,  but have not love, I gain nothing.

If so we know what Paul's thorn in the flesh was, a badly deformed and scared body from being burned.

 ______________________

What Paul is trying to say is "love is superior to everything even the impossible to acheive."

 ______________________

This is an obscure verse to which there is no proof of a angelic language. It is the only place in the Bible where an Angelic/heavenly language is mentioned.

_________

A language must be distinctive. It must have a meaning.

Does this fit the modern angelic/heavenly language?

The answer is NO!

Today's tongue has no meaning accept for a changing one to be decided by an interpreter (supposedly inspired by GOD) if one is present 


Language must have

In order for sound to be a language they must have a meaning.

this a scriptural statement see:

1 Corinthians 14:9  So with * yourselves, if with your tongue you utter speech that is not intelligible, how will anyone know what is said? For you will be speaking into the air.

10 There are doubtless many different languages in the world, and none is without meaning,

_________________

Does this fit the Modern day Heavenly Language?

 no!

Tongues today have no special and distinct meaning to the words /sounds made. The interpreter has the right to translate as he feels led to do. This is not a language according the Bible. It is just noise spoken into the air.  see

1 Corinthians 14:9


tongues defined by the Bible

1 Corinthians 14:9  So with * yourselves, if with your tongue you utter speech that is not intelligible, how will anyone know what is said? For you will be speaking into the air.

10 There are doubtless many different languages in the world, and none is without meaning,

 _____________

Acts 2:4-6  spoke other tongues-

vs 8  foreign languages  Parthians,Medes,Elamites, Mesopotamia,ETC 

vs 11 heard them speak in our own tongues

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Acts 10:46 they spoke in tongues
Acts 11:15 defines the tongues spoken=equal to day of pentecost=foreign languages


 

| !!!! tongues further explain

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1 Corinthians 14:5 Paul wishes all spoke in tongues(foreign languages) but even more to prophesy=prophesy is greater unless he interprets 1 Corinthians 14:13   one who speaks in tongue pray he should interprets 1 Corinthians 14:27-28 if some one speaks in a tongue(foreign language)... let some one interpret. if no interpreter let them be quiet in church  

| !!!! tongues are a language

1 Corinthians 14:10-11 many kinds of languages but none without meaning.We don't understand each other we would be a foreigners.   1 Corinthians 14:21 It is written "People of strange tongue and by lips of foreigners will I speak to this people" Hebrew poetry first phrase repeated second time, same meaning different words. Tongues again defind as a language of foreign lands not an always changing utterance. 1 Corinthians 14:22 tongues are a sign for nonbelievers-WHY? UNTAUGHT PERSON ABLE TO SPEAK A FOREIGN language perfectly without being taught, is a great attention getter. So why does today tongues happen in front of believers and no one can knows what is being said unless god intervenes and gives some one an interpretation to give to the people. This is completely different from what the Bible says. Why don't today people speak a foreign language to a non-believer without ever studing it, as the true example of Biblical tongues?

In Ephesians chapter 4 we see is:

1) ONE LORD, Jesus Christ, God came to earth in the flesh

    This leaves out many religious beliefs. WHY?

SOME:

    Totally denial of name of Jesus 

    Deny that the message of Jesus is true, it is  just a fictional story, good moral teaching standard

    Deny of the diety of Jesus

2) ONE FAITH, in 1 Corinthians 1 & 3, divisions are wrong,

   Eph 4:13 UNITY OF FAITH, unity of beliefs

   In Hebrews 2:1-4, we see miracles, signs, etc were give to confirm the message of salvation is 100% true.

    a) Today we see the message, unity of fellowship being taught

    b) We see, especailly in the Charismatic communities, the 'spirit' is proclaiming that their faith is the correct faith and is varified by the works of the 'spirit'. Yet the same 'spirit' or one of identical works is at work in many other groups saying that each of the other groups have the true faith.

       To make it more confusing is that members, some times the leaders, of those groups join together claiming the works of the 'spirit' is working in the TV evangleist, where all faiths, that procaim the name of Jesus, are going to heaven. Yet at the congregational level, the message is our brotherhood has the only true teaching.

      To me this is a confusing 'spirit'. It is confusing because the 'same spirit' or least one of identical works is telling group A, that the beliefs they have are 100% true and telling group B, that they have the faith that is 100% true. If group A and group B have different faiths, beliefs that are different, how can they both be 100% true?

    The false claim of, as long as one acknowledges Jesus as God, one is saved and is free to interpret the Bible any way they want to,  is the most often used escape goat.

3) ONE BAPTTISM, many baptisms mentioned in the New Testament, which one is valid for all Christians

   a) Baptized into Moses in the cloud and sea  I Cor.10:2

   b) Baptism refered to most often as the (baptism of suffering) Mark 10:38 Luke 12:50

   c) John's baptism of repentance Luke 3:3

d) Baptism of fire, Luke 3:16 is equal to the burning of chaff off the threshing floor. the Baptism of fire refers to the fate of those who do not accept Jesus

   e) Baptism of the Holy Spirit  Acts 1:5 >>was given to the apostles only

       1) was to be fulfilled in a few days

       2) will receive power, to be witnesses

       3) After church was founded, it came by laying on hands of the Apostles on believer  Acts 8:17-19. But it is not to the same fullness as the Apostles got, so it is not truly a baptism of the Holy Spirit and is often referred to as an out pouring of the Holy Spirit. 

         One exception given, although it was not a Baptism of but an outpouring of the Holy Spirit. It was on the Household of Cornelius. Acts 10:45

         God performed this exception to show to the Stiff necked Jews that salvation is open to all people, Jews and Gentiles alike.  Acts 10:47; 11:17-18; 15:8-9

   e) Baptism for forgiveness of sins  Act 2:38

       for believers Acts 2:37

       a promise is given for ALL CALLED BY GOD Acts 2:39

       the promise is "REPENT AND BE BAPTIZED EVERY ONE IN THE NAME OF  JESUS FOR FORGIVENESS OF SINS, and you will receive the gift of the Holy Spirit  Acts 2:38

       the promise is gift of the Holy Spirit and not GIFTS of the Holy Spirit  Acts 2:38

    f) The gift of the Holy Spirit is described:

as a seal Eph 1:13

       as a guarantee of ones inheritance Eph 1:14

g) Holy Spirit can be grieved (has emotional feelings) Eph. 4:30

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